Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional (CSSLP) Free Sample Questions

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CSSLP Sample Questions

  1. Question 1

    You work as a project manager for a company. The company has started a new security software project. The software configuration management will be used throughout the lifecycle of the project. You are tasked to modify the functional features and the basic logic of the software and then make them compatible to the initial design of the project. Which of the following procedures of the configuration management will you follow to accomplish the task?

    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation:
    Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration audits confirm that the configuration identification for a configured item is accurate, complete, and will meet specified program needs. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation. Answer: D is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined.
    Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed. Answer: A is incorrect. The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle.

  2. Question 2

    In which of the following IDS evasion attacks does an attacker send a data packet such that IDS accepts the data packet but the host computer rejects it?

    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation:
    In an insertion attack, an IDS accepts a packet and assumes that the host computer will also accept it. But in reality, when a host system rejects the packet, the IDS accepts the attacking string that will exploit vulnerabilities in the IDS. Such attacks can badly infect IDS signatures and IDS signature analysis. Answer: B is incorrect. In this approach, an attacker sends packets in such a manner that one packet fragment overlaps data from a previous fragment. The information is organized in the packets in such a manner that when the victim's computer reassembles the packets, an attack string is executed on the victim's computer.
    Since the attacking string is in fragmented form, IDS is unable to detect it. Answer: C is incorrect. In this approach, an attacker sends packets in such a manner that one packet fragment overwrites data from a previous fragment. The information is organized into the packets in such a manner that when the victim's computer reassembles the packets, an attack string is executed on the victim's computer. Since the attacking string is in fragmented form, IDS becomes unable to detect it. Answer: A is incorrect. An evasion attack is one in which an IDS rejects a malicious packet but the host computer accepts it. Since an IDS has rejected it, it does not check the contents of the packet. Hence, using this technique, an attacker can exploit the host computer. In many cases, it is quite simple for an attacker to send such data packets that can easily perform evasion attacks on an IDSs.

  3. Question 3

    Multiple answers

    Which of the following are the primary functions of configuration management?
    Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

    Answer and explanation

    Correct answers: B, C, D

    B, C, D -- Explanation:
    The primary functions of configuration management are as follows: It ensures that the change is implemented in a sequential manner through formalized testing. It ensures that the user base is informed of the future change. It analyzes the effect of the change that is implemented on the system. It reduces the negative impact that the change might have had on the computing services and resources. Answer: A is incorrect. It is not one of the primary functions of configuration management. It is the function of risk avoidance.

  4. Question 4

    In which of the following processes are experienced personnel and software tools used to investigate, resolve, and handle process deviation, malformed data, infrastructure, or connectivity issues?

    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation:
    Exception management is a process in which experienced personnel and software tools are used to investigate, resolve, and handle process deviation, malformed data, infrastructure or connectivity issues. It increases the efficiency of business processes and contributes in the progress of business. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration Management (CM) is an Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) IT Service Management (ITSM) process. It tracks all of the individual Configuration Items (Cl) in an IT system, which may be as simple as a single server, or as complex as the entire IT department. In large organizations a configuration manager may be appointed to oversee and manage the CM process. Answer: A is incorrect. Risk Management is used to identify, assess, and control risks. It includes analyzing the value of assets to the business, identifying threats to those assets, and evaluating how vulnerable each asset is to those threats. Risk Management is part of Service Design and the owner of the Risk Management is the Risk Manager. Risks are addressed within several processes in ITIL V3; however, there is no dedicated Risk Management process. ITIL V3 calls for "coordinated risk assessment exercises", so at IT Process Maps we decided to assign clear responsibilities for managing risks. Answer: D is incorrect. Change Management is used to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient handling of all changes. A change is "an event that results in a new status of one or more configuration items (Cl's)" approved by management, cost effective, enhances business process changes (fixes) - with a minimum risk to IT infrastructure. The main aims of Change Management are as follows: Minimal disruption of services Reduction in back-out activities Economic utilization of resources involved in the change

  5. Question 5

    Which of the following types of signatures is used in an Intrusion Detection System to trigger on attacks that attempt to reduce the level of a resource or system, or to cause it to crash?

    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation:
    Following are the basic categories of signatures: Informational (benign): These types of signatures trigger on normal network activity. For example: ICMP echo requests The opening or closing of TCP or UDP connections Reconnaissance: These types of signatures trigger on attacks that uncover resources and hosts that are reachable, as well as any possible vulnerabilities that they might contain. For example: Reconnaissance attacks include ping sweeps DNS queries Port scanning Access: These types of signatures trigger on access attacks, which include unauthorized access, unauthorized escalation of privileges, and access to protected or sensitive data. For example:
    Back Orifice A Unicode attack against the Microsoft IIS NetBus DoS: These types of signatures trigger on attacks that attempt to reduce the level of a resource or system, or to cause it to crash. For example: TCP SYN floods The Ping of Death Smurf Fraggle Trinoo Tribe Flood Network

  6. Question 6

    Multiple answers

    ISO 27003 is an information security standard published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). Which of the following elements does this standard contain? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

    Answer and explanation

    Correct answers: A, C, E, F

    A, C, E, F -- Explanation:
    ISO 27003 is an information security standard published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). It is entitled as "Information Technology - Security techniques - Information security management system implementation guidance". The ISO 27003 standard provides guidelines for implementing an ISMS (Information Security Management System). It mainly focuses upon the PDCA method along with establishing, implementing, reviewing, and improving the ISMS itself. The ISO 27003 standard contains the following elements: Introduction Scope Terms and Definitions CSFs (Critical success factors) Guidance on process approach Guidance on using PDCA Guidance on Plan Processes Guidance on Do Processes Guidance on Check Processes Guidance on Act Processes Inter-Organization Co-operation Answer: B is incorrect. This element is included in the ISO 27005 standard. Answer: D is incorrect. This element is included in the ISO 27006 standard.

  7. Question 7

    Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. Which of the following is the correct order of C&A phases in a DITSCAP assessment?

    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation:
    C&A consists of four phases in a DITSCAP assessment. These phases are the same as NIACAP phases. The order of these phases is as follows: 1.Definition: The definition phase is focused on understanding the IS business case, the mission, environment, and architecture. This phase determines the security requirements and level of effort necessary to achieve Certification & Accreditation (C&A). 2.Verification: The second phase confirms the evolving or modified system's compliance with the information. The verification phase ensures that the fully integrated system will be ready for certification testing. 3.Validation: The third phase confirms abidance of the fully integrated system with the security policy. This phase follows the requirements slated in the SSAA. The objective of the validation phase is to show the required evidence to support the DAA in accreditation process. 4.Post Accreditation: The Post Accreditation is the final phase of DITSCAP assessment and it starts after the system has been certified and accredited for operations. This phase ensures secure system management, operation, and maintenance to save an acceptable level of residual risk.

  8. Question 8

    You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You with your team are using a method or a (technical) process that conceives the risks even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. One of your team member wants to know that what is a residual risk. What will you reply to your team member?

    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation:
    Residual risks are generally smaller risks that remain in the project after larger risks have been addressed. The residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that still conceives these dangers even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). Answer: B is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks. Answer: C is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks. Answer: A is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks.

  9. Question 9

    In which of the following phases of the SDLC does the software and other components of the system faithfully incorporate the design specifications and provide proper documentation and training?

    Answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation:
    In the programming and training phase of the SDLC, the software and other components of the system faithfully incorporate the design specifications, and proper documentation and training are provided. Answer: D is incorrect. During the initiation phase, the need for a system is expressed and the purpose of the system is documented. Answer: A is incorrect. During the design phase, systems requirements are incorporated into design. This phase specifies to include controls that support the auditing of the system. Answer: B is incorrect. During the evaluation and acceptance phase, the system and data are validated, all the control requirements and the user requirements are met by the system.

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